I study morality from an interdisciplinary perspective that draws on my background in philosophy and psychology. My primary research interests are:
Psychology
Philosophy
My research focuses on the the psychology of metaethics, metaphilosophy, and methodological issues in experimental philosophy. Most of my research centers on whether nonphilosophers are moral realists, and the implications these empirical findings have for philosophy. I am intensely skeptical of the methods employed in both mainstream philosophy and psychology, and a great deal of my work also centers on critiquing the methods typically employed in both fields.
I also run a blog and YouTube channel that focus on metaethics, metaphilosophy, and metascience.
I am also active on TikTok where I mostly have live discussions with people about their philosophical views.
I would not accept this characterization. Antirealism is the view that there are no stance-independent moral facts. I don’t think it logically entails any particular normative implications at all, so I do not think it has no “normative space” or “no logical or empirical line of reasoning” you could give to change someone’s motivations.
I’m not sure what you have in mind by a language game, but you gave this as an example of something an antirealist has no access to: “Show me that their policies are more aligned with a moral view that we both in fact share.”
Why wouldn’t an antirealist have access to this? There’s a few obvious counterexamples to this. Here’s one: cultural relativism. If two people are cultural relativists and are members of the same culture, one of them could readily convince the other that a policy is more in line with the moral standards of the culture than some other policy. The same generalizes to other antirealist positions, such as various constructivist views.
Why should they be skeptical? I am a moral antirealist and I have all kinds of preferences that are totally unrelated to my own experiences. I want my daughter to go on to live a happy life long after I am dead, and I would actively sacrifice my own welfare to ensure this would be the case even if I’d never experience it. I don’t believe I do this because I’d feel happy knowing the sacrifice was made; I’d do it because I value more than just my own experiences.
I see no legitimate reason for realists to be skeptical of antirealists who have values like this. There is nothing special about valuing experiences I’d realize that prioritizes them over ones I won’t.
That isn’t what that means to me, so I do not think this is correct. If you think this is some kind of logical entailment of moral antirealism, I’d be interested in seeing an attempt at showing a contradiction were an antirealist to think otherwise, or some other means of demonstrating that this follows from antirealism.
When performing an action, my goal is to achieve the desired outcome. I don’t have to experience the outcome to be motivated to perform the action.
I don’t endorse this view, and I deny as an antirealist I’d have any need to “defend” a moral standard. This to me sounds a bit like suggesting I’d be unable to defend what my favorite color is; which is true, I just don’t think my color preferences require any sort of defense.
This still may or may not be connected to anyone’s motivations. I don’t care at all what the moral facts are. I only act based on my own preferences, and I have absolutely no desire whatsoever to do whatever is stance-independently moral.
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I’d be happy to talk about the other claims in the sidebar as well but I’m not sure I understand some of them. Can you elaborate on these?
What is it antirealists are supposed to explain, specifically?
Also, I don’t intend to be argumentative about literally everything, but some of us may find other aspects of these topics more interesting than you, so which of these topics is most interesting can vary.
Why wouldn’t 6 be available to an antirealist? If I’m a utilitarian and they’re a utilitarian, I could convince them a course of action would maximize utility. This would be a bit like (1): convincing them that a course of action would be consistent with their values.
If by (7) what you mean by “correct” is demonstrating that a course of action is in line with the stance-independent moral facts, an antirealist couldn’t sincerely attempt to do that, but I don’t think this carries any significant practical implications.
I don’t think I need to have better access to someone’s values to make a compelling case. For instance, suppose I’m running a store and someone breaks in with a gun and demands I empty the cash register. I don’t have to know what their values are better than they do to point out that they are on lots of security cameras, or that the police are on their way, and so on. It isn’t that hard to appeal to people’s values when convincing them. We do this all the time.
And, for what it’s worth, I think that in practice the vast majority of the time (in fact, personally, I suspect virtually all the time except for rare cases of weird philosophers) what people are doing is appealing to a person’s own values, not attempting to convince them that their values are misaligned with the stance independent moral facts.
Part of the reason for this is that I don’t think most people are moral realists, so it wouldn’t make sense for them to argue on behalf of moral realism or to appeal to others under the presumption that they are moral realists.
Another reason I think this is because I don’t think the move from convincing someone what the stance-independent moral facts are to them acting in any particular way is that straightforward. You’d have to make a separate case for motivational internalism to show that convincing them is enough to motivate them, while if you instead abandon this, it’s possible the people you’re convincing can be persuaded of what the stance-independent moral facts are, but simply not care.
Speaking for myself, arguing for moral realism would have absolutely no impact on me. I don’t simply reject moral realism. I also deny that if there were stance-independent moral facts, that I’d have any motivation to comply with them (of course, I could be wrong about that). If I’m right, and if I have accurately introspected on my own values, then merely knowing something is stance-independently wrong wouldn’t change what I do at all. I simply don’t care if something is stance-independently moral or immoral. So why would persuading me of that matter?
Whether or not antirealists must rely, in practice, any more so on threats or manipulation than moral realists is an open empirical question. I predict that they don’t. If I had to make predictions, I’d instead predict that moral realists are more likely to threaten or manipulate people to comply with whatever they take the stance-independent moral facts to be. That at least strikes me as a viable alternative hypothesis. Either way, this is an empirical question, and I don’t know of any evidence that antirealists are in a worse position than realists. As an aside: even if they were, that wouldn’t be a good reason to reject the truth of moral antirealism. Reality may simply not include stance-independent moral facts. Even if that foreclosed one mode of persuasion, well, too bad! That’s how reality is.
As an aside, I think this remark:
…carries the pragmatic implication that antirealists are more likely to be immoral people that threaten or manipulate others. Do you agree?
What exactly is the argument against antirealism? Antirealists cannot honestly appeal to stance-independent moral facts when persuading others. I agree with that. But I don’t know why that should be taken as an argument against moral antirealism.
Well, I think the 6th collapses into the first and that the 7th has no practical benefits, so I’m not persuaded this is true. I do not think we’d be better off in any way at all if moral realism is true, and I am not convinced you’ve shown that we would be.
More generally, I simply deny anything about antirealism leaves in an especially weak position to rely on threats or manipulation. Antirealists can appeal to people’s values. And I think moral realists would have to do exactly the same thing. If the person in question doesn’t care about what’s true or isn’t motivated by what’s moral, then the realist is going to be in the exact same boat as the antirealist. The only thing the realist does is saddle themselves with more steps.
I don't think I defended my remarks on the matter as well as I could have, and David Moss has brought to light some of what Bentham initially said and used that to make a good point. MichaelDickens, you've expressed a critical stance towards the post I wrote that uses the term "quackery" and is polemical.
But if you take a look, you will see from the tone and links provided that I am responding in an ongoing exchange that has spanned quite some time. During that time, Bentham has routinely made far more inflammatory and insulting remarks about antirealist views. For instance, this was a section heading he used in an early post on moral realism (one of the two I linked a response to here):
You can find this here.
Bentham also repeatedly describes views like mine as "crazy". Here's one example:
I worry that you drew a conclusion about my tone without taking into consideration Bentham's own tone and what I was responding to.
I'm a moral antirealist, and I myself think that undeserved pain is bad regardless of what attitudes other people have about such pain. The reason I think such pain is bad is because I disapprove of it. So what you've described is completely consistent with antirealism. For comparison, I think pineapple on pizza tastes good regardless of what other people have about it.
What would be required for a person's stance about this scenario to suggest realism is if they thought that pain was bad regardless of what anyone thought about it, including themselves and the person experiencing the pain. That is, they'd need to think that the pain would be bad even if they didn't think it was bad and even if the person experiencing the pain didn't think it was bad. And I don't think most people think this.
I'm familiar with phenomenal conservatism (I've directly discussed moral realism with one of its main proponents, Mike Huemer here, and have written a bit about the topic such as here). I don't endorse it, but even if I did, I think its frequently misused and isn't going to do much to support realism. At best, phenomenal conservatism provides one with a private, extra source of "justification" for one's beliefs, but it has little dialectical force in an argument. The fact that something seems a certain way to you may matter to me a little bit to me, but if it doesn't seem that way to me (or it seems that the contrary is the case), how things seem to you won't count for much.
Seems that way to who? It does not seem that way to me. If I had to say how things "seemed," I'd say it seems to me that this is not the case.
They do, but I don't find these arguments even a little convincing. I don't see any good reasons to be a normative realist in any nonmoral domains, either.
Personally, I think there are very serious problems with people relying so heavily on how much things seem to them. Among other issues, I don't think there are good ways to resolve conflicts if things seem differently to others.
I think pain is bad, but I don't think pain is bad independently of what I or anyone thinks about it. I think pain is bad insofar as I don't like being in pain and don't want anyone else to be in pain (all else being equal). Why be a realist about the badness of pain, or anything else? While I agree arguments for moral antirealism are typically not very good, I also do not think there are any good arguments for moral realism, nor any particularly good reason to think moral realism is true.
You also say the view should be taken very seriously. Why should it be taken very seriously?
You suggest antirealism has undesirable properties, then say:
I am a moral antirealist. I don’t think I endorse a position that is a “doctrine of conflict.” However, it’s hard to assess why you think this. You suggest that antirealism entails that “reason has no place in motivational discussion.” I’m not quite sure what you mean by this, but I don’t think reason has no place. Why would I think that? Perhaps you are thinking of “reason” differently than I am? If you could elaborate on what you are claiming here, and how you are thinking of some of these notions, that would be helpful.
As an antirealist, I don’t rely on threats or emotional manipulation or misinformation any more than anyone else, and I don’t know why I would if I were an antirealist. I don’t think antirealism has anything to do with having to rely any more on any of these than moral realism does. Why would it?
Why do you find emotivism convincing?
Why would phenomenal conservatism imply some form of moral realism?
Realists might just say you have a reason simpliciter. There's nothing more to it than that. And they think this because it's intuitive.