AlephHead
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In your linked context for assuming a correlation between welfare and BMR^Exp you talk about neurons. How do you justify expanding this assumption to organisms without neurons?
In your linked context for assuming a correlation between welfare and BMR^Exp you talk about neurons. How do you justify expanding this assumption to organisms without neurons?
Do you have an underlying causal model for why BMR^Exp1 and IW/FHAY could be generally correlated beyond being correlated through the indirect connection BMR^Exp2 ∝ Neuron Count and NC^Exp2 ∝ Welfare ?
Do you have theories of consciousness that could give a model for how organisms without neurons could have hedonic experiences?
Naively I would assume that the correlation between BMR^Exp1 and IW/FHAY is completely explained through the connection through the neuron count variable and extending the model to organisms without neurons would be fallacious.